Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 00:30
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
My husband asked me why do I keep on complaining about him cheating. Why don't I just leave?
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What are some hard truths that MAGA needs to hear?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.